Sunday, January 19, 2014

Chemistry Objective Question

                No comments   

Chemistry Objective Question


1.
+I effect is shown by
(A) -N02
(B) -Cl
(C) -Br
(D) -CH3
Answer: (D)
2.
0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is ______.
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
Answer: (C)
3.
0.5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A hole was made in the container. After 3 hours, the order of partial pressures in the container will be
(A) pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4
(B) pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2
(C) pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4
(D) pSO2 > pCH4, > pH2
Answer: (D)
4.
10 cm3 of 0.1 N monobasic acid requires 15 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution whose normality is
(A) 1.5 N
(B) 0.15 N
(C) 0.066 N
(D) 0.66 N
Answer: (C)
5.
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
(A) between 6 and 7
(B) between 10 and 11
(C) between 7 and 8
(D) between 5 and 6
Answer: (C)
6.
2 gm of a radioactive sample having half life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st Jan 2009. The amount of the sample left behind on 1st March. 2009 (including both the days)
(A) 1 gm
(B) 0.5 gm
(C) 0 gm
(D) 0.125 gm
Answer: (D)
7.
2HI(g) Ý H2(g) + I2(g)
The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is 6.4 at 300 K. If 0.25 mole each of H2 and
I2 are added to the system, the equilibrium constant will be
(A) 3.2
(B) 1.6
(C) 6.4
(D) 0.8
Answer: (C)




10.
5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are allowed to react. At equilibrium, it was found that 60% of SO2 is used up. lf the partial pressure of the equilibrium mixture is one atmosphere. the partial pressure of O2 is
(A) 0.21 atm
(B) 0.41 atm
(C) 0.82 atm
(D) 0.52 atm
Answer: (B)
11.
Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene?
(A) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product
(B) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds
(C) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value
(D) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120°
Answer: (B)
12.
Which one of the following is paramagnetic?
(A) N2
(B) NO
(C) CO
(D) O3
Answer: (B)
13.
Which one of the following is a covalent crystal?
(A) Ice
(B) Rock salt
(C) Dry ice
(D) Quartz
Answer: (D)
14.
Which one of the following DOES NOT involve coagulation?
(A) Formation of delta region
(B) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride
(C) Peptization
(D) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum
Answer: (C)
15.
Which one is not a constituent of nucleic acid?
(A) Uracil
(B) Guanidine
(C) Phosphoric acid
(D) Ribose sugar
Answer: (B)
1.
50 cm3 of 0.2 N HCI is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration is discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is ______.
(A) 10 cm3
(B) 12 cm3
(C) 10.5 cm3
(D) 25 cm3
Answer: (A)
2.
80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in
(A) 80 g of hydrogen
(B) 1 g of hydrogen
(C) 10 g of hydrogen
(D) 5 g of hydrogen
Answer: (D)
3.
9.65 C of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous magnesium chloride. The magnesium metal thus obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. The number of moles of the Grignard reagent obtained is ______.
(A) 1 ´ 10-4
(B) 5 ´ 10-4
(C) 1 ´ 10-5
(D) 5 ´ 10-5
Answer: (D)
4.
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
(A) 6% solution of Glucose
(B) 25% solution of Glucose
(C) 1 M solution of Glucose
(D) 0.05 M solution of Glucose
Answer: (C)
5.
A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32. The molecular mass of the metal nitrate is
(A) I92
(B) 188
(C) 182
(D) 168
Answer: (B)
6.
A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms-1. The wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with it would be
(Note : h = 6.63 ´ 10-34Js)
(A) 6.63 ´ 10-37m
(B) 6.63 ´ 10-31m
(C) 6.63 ´ 10-34m
(D) 6.63 ´ 10-35m
Answer: (B)
7.
A body of mass x kg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms-1. Its de Broglie wavelength is 6.62 ´ 10-35m. Hence x is (h = 6.62 ´ 10-34Js)
(A) 0.15 kg
(B) 0.2 kg
(C) 0.1 kg
(D) 0.25 kg
Answer: (C)
8.
A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic acid. To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolved. The pH of the resulting buffer is equal to ______.
(A) pKa
(B) pKa - Log2
(C) pKa + L0g2
(D) pKa + 2
Answer: (C)



10.
A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero is
(A) K4 [Fe (CN)6]
(B) K3 [Fe (CN)6]
(C) [Ni (CO)4]
(D) [Pl (NH3 )4]Cl2
Answer: (C)
11.
Which of the following is used to prepare Cl2 gas at room temperature from concentrated HCI?
(A) MnO2
(B) H2S
(C) KMnO4
(D) Cr2O3
Answer: (C)
12.
Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium?
(A) Carnallite
(B) Dolomite
(C) Calamine
(D) Sea water
Answer: (C)
13.
Which of the following has the highest bond order?
(A) N2
(B) O2
(C) He2
(D) H2
Answer: (A)
14.
Which of the following gives an aldehyde on dry distillation?
(A) Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate
(B) Calcium formate + calcium acetate
(C) Calcium benzoate
(D) Calcium acetate
Answer: (B)
15.
Which of the following does not give benzoic acid on hydrolysis?
(A) phenyl cyanide
(B) benzoyl chloride
(C) benzyl chloride
(D) methyl benzoate
Answer: (C)

1.
A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallises in the cubic structure where the A atoms are at the comers of the cube and B atoms are at the body centres. The simplest formula of the compound is
(A) AB
(B) A6B
(C) A8B4
(D) AB6
Answer: (A)


2.
A compound of 'A' and 'B' crystallises in a cubic lattice in which the 'A' atoms occupy the lattice points at the comers of the cube. The 'B' atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
(A) AB
(B) AB3
(C) AB2
(D) A3B
Answer: (B)


3.
A covalent molecule AB3 has pyramidal structure. The number of lone pair and bond pair electrons in the molecule are respectively
(A) 3 and 1
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 2
(D) 0 and 4
Answer: (B)


4.
A diabetic person carries a pocket of Glucose with him always, because
(A) Glucose reduces the blood sugar level.
(B) Glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously.
(C) Glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly.
(D) Glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly.
Answer: (B)


5.
A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is ______.
(A) 2, 2 - dibromobutane
(B) 1, 1 - dibromopropane
(C) 1, 4 - dibromobutane
(D) 1, 2 - dibromoethane
Answer: (C)


6.
A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high pressure because its molecules
(A) attract one another
(B) show the Tyndall effect
(C) have kinetic energy
(D) are bound by covalent bonds
Answer: (A)


7.
A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is
(A) 1 atm
(B) 0.5 atm
(C) 0.8 atm
(D) 0.9 atm
Answer: (B)


8.
A ligand can also be regarded as
(A) Lewis acid
(B) Bronsted base
(C) Lewis base
(D) Bronsted acid
Answer: (C)


9.
A metal present in insulin is
(A) copper
(B) iron
(C) zinc
(D) aluminium
Answer: (C)


10.
A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all the Ca+2 ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl in the mixture (atomic mass of Ca = 40) is ______.
(A) 30.6
(B) 75
(C) 69.4
(D) 25
Answer: (B)


11.
Which of the following compound would not evolve CO2 when treated with NaHCO3 solution?
(A) salicylic acid
(B) phenol
(C) benzoic acid
(D) 4-nitro benzoic acid
Answer: (B)


12.
Which is not the correct statement about RNA and DNA?
(A) DNA is active in virus where RNA never appears in virus
(B) DNA exists as dimer while RNA is usually single stranded
(C) DNA contains deoxyribose as its sugar and RNA contains ribose
(D) RNA contains uracil in place of thymine (found in DNA) as a base
Answer: (A)


13.
Which cycloalkane has the lowest heat of combustion per CH2 group?
(A) cyclopropane
(B) cyclobutanc
(C) cyclopontane
(D) cyclohexane
Answer: (D)


14.
When a mixture of calcium benzoate and calcium acetate is dry distilled, the resulting compound is
(A) acetophenone
(B) benzaldehyde
(C) benzophenone
(D) acetaldehyde
Answer: (A)


15.
What is the nature of glucose-glucose linkage in starch that makes its so susceptible to acid hydrolysis?
(A) Starch is hemiacetal
(B) Starch is acetal
(C) Starch is polymer
(D) Starch contains only few molecules of glucose
Answer: (B)


1.
A white crystalline salt A reacts with dilute HCI to liberate a suffocating gas B and also forms a yellow precipitate. The gas B turns potassium dichromate acidified with dilute H2SO4 to a green coloured solution C. A, B and C are respectively ______.
(A) Na2S2O3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3
(B) Na2SO3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3
(C) Na2SO4, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3
(D) Na2S, SO, Cr2 (SO4)3
Answer: (A)


2.
According to Bayer's strain theory which is highly stable?
(A) cyclohexane
(B) cycloheptane
(C) cyclopentane
(D) cyclobutane
Answer: (C)







4.
Acidified sodium fusion extract on addition of ferric chloride solution gives blood red colouration which confirms the presence of
(A) S
(B) N
(C) N and S
(D) S and Cl
Answer: (C)


5.
Amines behave as
(A) Lewis acids
(B) Lewis base
(C) aprotic acid
(D) neutral compound
Answer: (B)


6.
Among the following, the compound that contains ionic, covalent and coordinate linkage is
(A) NaCl
(B) CaO
(C) NH3
(D) NH4Cl
Answer: (D)


7.
Among the following, which is least acidic?
(A) phenol
(B) O-cresol
(C) p-nitrophenol
(D) p-chlorophenol
Answer: (B)


8.
An alkyl halide reacts with alcoholic ammonia in a sealed tube, the product formed will be
(A) a primary amine
(B) a secondary amine-
(C) a tertiary amine
(D) a mixture of all the three
Answer: (D)


9.
An aqueous solution containing 6.5 gm of NaCl of 90% purity was subjected to electrolysis. After the complete electrolysis, the solution was evaporated to get solid NaOH. The volume of 1 M acetic acid required to neutralise NaOH obtained above is
(A) 100 cm3
(B) 200 cm3
(C) 1000 cm3
(D) 2000 cm3
Answer: (A)


10.
An element with atomic number 21 is a
(A) halogen
(B) representative element
(C) transition element
(D) alkali metal
Answer: (C)


11.
The sp3d2 hybridization of central atom of a molecule would lead to
(A) square planar geometry
(B) Tetrahedral geometry
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(D) Octahedral geometry
Answer: (D)


12.
The reagent with which both acetaldehyde and acetone react is
(A) I2/NaOH
(B) Fehling's reaction
(C) Carbonic acid
(D) Tollen's reagent
Answer: (A)


13.
The ozone layer forms naturally by
(A) the interaction of CFC with oxygen
(B) the interaction of UV radiation with oxygen
(C) the interaction of IR radiation with oxygen
(D) the interaction of oxygen and water vapour
Answer: (B)


14.
The number of naturally occurring p-block elements that are diamagnetic is ______.
(A) 6
(B) 18
(C) 7
(D) 5
Answer: (D)


15.
The normality of 30 volume H2O2 is
(A) 2.678 N
(B) 5.336 N
(C) 8.034 N
(D) 6.685 N
Answer: (B)


1.
An ionic compound is expected to have tetrahedral structure if http://www.questionpapers.net.in/chemistry/questions/005_files/image001.gif lies in the range of
(A) 0.414 to 0.732
(B) 0.225 to 0.414
(C) 0.155 to 0.225
(D) 0.732 to 1
Answer: (B)


2.
An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid orbitals of the following type are involved
(A) sp3
(B) d sp2
(C) d2sp3
(D) sp2d2
Answer: (C)


3.
An organic compound on heating with CuO produces CO2 but no water. The organic
compound may be
(A) Methane
(B) Ethyl iodide
(C) Carbon tetrachloride
(D) Chloroform
Answer: (C)







5.
An oxygen containing organic compound upon oxidation forms a carboxylic acid as the only organic product with its molecular mass higher by 14 units. The organic compound is ______.
(A) a primary alcohol
(B) an aldehyde
(C) a ketone
(D) a secondary alcohol
Answer: (A)


6.
Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The reaction is called
(A) Wurtz's reaction
(B) Williamson's reaction
(C) Fittig's reaction
(D) Etard's reaction
Answer: (B)


7.
Argon is used
(A) in high temperature welding
(B) in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer
(C) in filling airships
(D) to obtain low temperature
Answer: (A)


8.
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strengths :
CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, NH3
(A) (CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2 NH
(B) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N < NH3
(C) NH3 < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
(D) NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
Answer: (D)







10.
Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?
(A) For an adiabatic process: DU = -w
(B) For an isochoric process: DU = -q
(C) For a cyclic process: q = -w
(D) For an isothermal process: q = +w
Answer: (C)


11.
The yellow precipitate formed during the chromyl chloride test is chemically
(A) lead chromate
(B) chromic acid
(C) sodium chromate
(D) lead acetate
Answer: (A)


12.
The typical range of molar enthalpies for the strongest intermolecular (Hydrogen) bonds is
(A) 200 – 300 kJ
(B) 300 – 500 kJ
(C) 4 – 25 kJ
(D) 4 – 25 J
Answer: (C)


13.
The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction is
(A) a/2k
(B) ak
(C) 2k/a
(D) a/k
Answer: (D)


14.
The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving 2 moles of electrons in its rodox reaction is 0.59 V. The equilibrium constant for the redox reaction of the cell is
(A) 105
(B) 1020
(C) 1010
(D) 10
Answer: (B)


15.
The spin only magnetic moment of Fe2+ ion (in BM) is approximately
(A) 7
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 5
Answer: (D)


1.
Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using ______.
(A) sodium hydroxide solution
(B) Fehling's solution
(C) Tollens' reagent
(D) 2, 4-DNPH
Answer: (C)


2.
Benzene reacts with chlorine in sunlight to give a final product
(A) C6H5Cl
(B) C6Cl6
(C) C6H6Cl6
(D) CCl4
Answer: (C)


3.
By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?
(A) 1.4
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.8
(D) 4.0
Answer: (A)


4.
Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a temperature above 983 K because ______.
(A) carbon has a higher affinity towards oxidation than iron.
(B) carbon monoxide formed is thermodynamically less stable than ferric oxide.
(C) iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon.
(D) free energy change for the formation of carbon dioxide is less negative than that for ferric oxide.
Answer: (A)


5.
Carbon forms two oxides which have different compositions. The equivalent mass of which remains constant?
(A) carbon
(B) oxygen
(C) neither carbon nor oxygen
(D) both carbon and oxygen
Answer: (B)


6.
Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a
(A) secondary alcohol
(B) aldehyde
(C) ketone
(D) ester
Answer: (B)












9.
Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This can be explained using ______.
(A) - I effect
(B) - M effect
(C) +I effect
(D) + M effect
Answer: (A)


10.
Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?
(A) H2 and Pt as catalyst
(B) Glycol with KOH
(C) Zn-Hg with HCl
(D) LiAlH4
Answer: (C)


11.
0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is ______.
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 9
Answer: (C)


12.
2 gm of metal carbonate is neutralized completely by 100 ml of 0.1 (N) HCI. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 150
(D) 200
Answer: (D)


13.
25 g of each of the following gasses are taken at 27oC and 600 mm pressure. Which of these will have the least volume?
(A) HCl
(B) HBr
(C) HI
(D) HF
Answer: (C)


14.
4 moles each of SO2 and O2 gases are allowed to react to form SO3 in a closed vessel. At equilibrium 25% of O2 is used up. The total number of moles of all the gases present at equilibrium is
(A) 6.5
(B) 7.0
(C) 8.0
(D) 2.0
Answer: (B)


15.
A distinctive and characteristic functional group of fats is
(A) a peptide group
(B) an ester group
(C) an alcoholic group
(D) a ketonic group
Answer: (B)

1.
Generally, the first ionization energy increases along a period. But there are some exceptions. One which is NOT an exception is ______.
(A) Na and Mg
(B) N and O
(C) Be and B
(D) Mg and Al
Answer: (A)

8.
Which one of these is NOT true for benzene?
(A) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds.
(B) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product.
(C) The bond angle between the carbon-carbon bonds is 1200.
(D) The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value.
Answer: (A)

3.
Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is
(A) 11200 cm3
(B) 22400 cm3
(C) 5600 cm3
(D) 3200 cm3
Answer: (B)

4.
Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite
(A) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers.
(B) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds.
(C) is a non-crystalline substance.
(D) is an allotropic form of carbon.
Answer: (B)

5.
Helium is used in balloons in place of hydrogen because it is
(A) incombustible
(B) lighter than hydrogen
(C) radioactive
(D) more abundant than hydrogen
Answer: (A)

6.
Hofmann's bromamide reaction is to convert
(A) amine to amide
(B) amide to amine
(C) alcohol to acid
(D) acid to alcohol
Answer: (B)

7.
How many chiral carbon atoms are present in 2, 3, 4 - trichloropentane?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 4
Answer: (B)

8.
How many optically active stereomers are possible for butan-2, 3-diol?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (B)

9.
Hydrogen gas is not liberated when the following metal is added to dil. HCl
(A) Ag
(B) Zn
(C) Mg
(D) Sn
Answer: (A)

10.
Hydroxyl ion concentration of 1M HCl is
(A) 1 ´ 1014mol dm-3
(B) 1 ´ 10-1mol dm-3
(C) 1 ´ 10-13mol dm-3 
(D) 1 ´ 101mol dm-3
Answer: (A)
























Facts

                No comments   

         

           Mechanics


  1. Weight (force of gravity) decreases as you move away from the earth by distance squared.
  2. Mass and inertia are the same thing.
  3. Constant velocity and zero velocity means the net force is zero and acceleration is zero.
  4. Weight (in newtons) is mass x acceleration (w = mg). Mass is not weight!
  5. Velocity, displacement [s], momentum, force and acceleration are vectors.
  6. Speed, distance [d], time, and energy (joules) are scalar quantities.
  7. The slope of the velocity-time graph is acceleration.
  8. At zero (0) degrees two vectors have a resultant equal to their sum. At 180 degrees two vectors have a resultant equal to their difference. From the difference to the sum is the total range of possible resultants.
  9. Centripetal force and centripetal acceleration vectors are toward the center of the circle- while the velocity vector is tangent to the circle.
  10. An unbalanced force (object not in equilibrium) must produce acceleration.
  11. The slope of the distance-tine graph is velocity.
  12. The equilibrant force is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the resultant vector.
  13. Momentum is conserved in all collision systems.
  14. Magnitude is a term use to state how large a vector quantity is.

    Energy


  1. Mechanical energy is the sum of the potential and kinetic energy.
  2. Units: a = [m/sec2], F = [kg•m/sec2] (newton), work = pe= ke = [kg•m2/sec2] (joule)
  3. An ev is an energy unit equal to 1.6 x 10-19 joules
  4. Gravitational potential energy increases as height increases.
  5. Kinetic energy changes only if velocity changes.
  6. Mechanical energy (pe + ke) does not change for a free falling mass or a swinging pendulum. (when ignoring air friction)
  7. The units for power are [joules/sec] or the rate of change of energy.

    Electricity


  1. A coulomb is charge, an amp is current [coulomb/sec] and a volt is potential difference [joule/coulomb].
  2. Short fat cold wires make the best conductors.
  3. Electrons and protons have equal amounts of charge (1.6 x 10-19 coulombs each).
  4. Adding a resistor in parallel decreases the total resistance of a circuit.
  5. Adding a resistor in series increases the total resistance of a circuit.
  6. All resistors in series have equal current (I).
  7. All resistors in parallel have equal voltage (V).
  8. If two charged spheres touch each other add the charges and divide by two to find the final charge on each sphere.
  9. Insulators contain no free electrons.
  10. Ionized gases conduct electric current using positive ions, negative ions and electrons.
  11. Electric fields all point in the direction of the force on a positive test charge.
  12. Electric fields between two parallel plates are uniform in strength except at the edges.
  13. Millikan determined the charge on a single electron using his famous oil-drop experiment.
  14. All charge changes result from the movement of electrons not protons (an object becomes positive by losing electrons)

    Magnetism


  1. The direction of a magnetic field is defined by the direction a compass needle points.
  2. Magnetic fields point from the north to the south outside the magnet and south to north inside the magnet.
  3. Magnetic flux is measured in webers.
  4. Left hands are for negative charges and right hands are for positive charges.
  5. The first hand rule deals with the B-field around a current bearing wire, the third hand rule looks at the force on charges moving in a B-field, and the second hand rule is redundant.
  6. Solenoids are stronger with more current or more wire turns or adding a soft iron core.

    Wave Phenomena


  1. Sound waves are longitudinal and mechanical.
  2. Light slows down, bends toward the normal and has a shorter wavelength when it enters a higher (n) value medium.
  3. All angles in wave theory problems are measured to the normal.
  4. Blue light has more energy. A shorter wavelength and a higher frequency than red light (remember- ROYGBIV).
  5. The electromagnetic spectrum (radio, infrared, visible. Ultraviolet x-ray and gamma) are listed lowest energy to highest.
  6. A prism produces a rainbow from white light by dispersion (red bends the least because it slows the least).
  7. Light wave are transverse (they can be polarized).
  8. The speed of all types of electromagnetic waves is 3.0 x 108 m/sec in a vacuum.
  9. The amplitude of a sound wave determines its energy.
  10. Constructive interference occurs when two waves are zero (0) degrees out of phase or a whole number of wavelengths (360 degrees.) out of phase.
  11. At the critical angle a wave will be refracted to 90 degrees.
  12. According to the Doppler effect a wave source moving toward you will generate waves with a shorter wavelength and higher frequency.
  13. Double slit diffraction works because of diffraction and interference.
  14. Single slit diffraction produces a much wider central maximum than double slit.
  15. Diffuse reflection occurs from dull surfaces while regular reflection occurs from mirror type surfaces.
  16. As the frequency of a wave increases its energy increases and its wavelength decreases.
  17. Transverse wave particles vibrate back and forth perpendicular to the wave direction.
  18. Wave behavior is proven by diffraction, interference and the polarization of light.
  19. Shorter waves with higher frequencies have shorter periods.
  20. Radiowaves are electromagnetic and travel at the speed of light (c).
  21. Monochromatic light has one frequency.
  22. Coherent light waves are all in phase.

    Geometric Optics


  1. Real images are always inverted.
  2. Virtual images are always upright.
  3. Diverging lens (concave) produce only small virtual images.
  4. Light rays bend away from the normal as they gain speed and a longer wavelength by entering a slower (n) medium {frequency remains constant}.
  5. The focal length of a converging lens (convex) is shorter with a higher (n) value lens or if blue light replaces red.

    Modern Physics


  1. The particle behavior of light is proven by the photoelectric effect.
  2. A photon is a particle of light {wave packet}.
  3. Large objects have very short wavelengths when moving and thus can not be observed behaving as a wave. (DeBroglie Waves)
  4. All electromagnetic waves originate from accelerating charged particles.
  5. The frequency of a light wave determines its energy (E = hf).
  6. The lowest energy state of a atom is called the ground state.
  7. Increasing light frequency increases the kinetic energy of the emitted photo-electrons.
  8. As the threshold frequency increase for a photo-cell (photo emissive material) the work function also increases.
  9. Increasing light intensity increases the number of emitted photo-electrons but not their KE.


    10. Internal Energy

  10. Internal energy is the sum of temperature (ke) and phase (pe) conditions.
  11. Steam and liquid water molecules at 100 degrees have equal kinetic energies.
  12. Degrees Kelvin (absolute temp.) Is equal to zero (0) degrees Celsius.
  13. Temperature measures the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
  14. Phase changes are due to potential energy changes.
  15. Internal energy always flows from an object at higher temperature to one of lower temperature.

    Nuclear Physics


  1. Alpha particles are the same as helium nuclei and have the symbol
  2. The atomic number is equal to the number of protons (2 for alpha)
  3. Deuterium  is an isotope of hydrogen
  4. The number of nucleons is equal to protons + neutrons (4 for alpha)
  5. Only charged particles can be accelerated in a particle accelerator such as a cyclotron or Van Der Graaf generator.
  6. Natural radiation is alpha , beta and gamma (high energy x-rays)
  7. A loss of a beta particle results in an increase in atomic number.
  8. All nuclei weigh less than their parts. This mass defect is converted into binding energy. (E=mc2)
  9. Isotopes have different neutron numbers and atomic masses but the same number of protons (atomic numbers).
  10. Geiger counters, photographic plates, cloud and bubble chambers are all used to detect or observe radiation.
  11. Rutherford discovered the positive nucleus using his famous gold-foil experiment.
  12. Fusion requires that hydrogen be combined to make helium.
  13. Fission requires that a neutron causes uranium to be split into middle size atoms and produce extra neutrons.
  14. Radioactive half-lives can not be changed by heat or pressure.
  15. One AMU of mass is equal to 931 meV of energy (E = mc2).
  16. Nuclear forces are strong and short ranged.


DO YOU KNOW ??


1)The Dead Sea is so dense with salt, you can easily float on it without drowning
 
2)The world's densest wood, the Black Ironwood (Olea laurifolia), does not float on water and therefore sinks.

3.The mass of our entire atmosphere is estimated to be some 5.5 quadrillion tons (55 followed by 14 zeros).

4.Chewing gum was invented by a dentist, named William Semple - as a way to exercise your jaws.

5 The diameter of a proton is approximately 0.000000000001 mm (1/25,000,000,000,000 inch).

Numerical Problems

           ,      No comments   

Numerical Problems

  1. An airplane accelerates down a runway at 3.20 m/s2 for 32.8 s until is finally lifts off the ground. Determine the distance traveled before takeoff.


  2. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly over a time of 5.21 seconds for a distance of 110 m. Determine the acceleration of the car.


  3. Upton Chuck is riding the Giant Drop at Great America. If Upton free falls for 2.6 seconds, what will be his final velocity and how far will he fall?


  4. A race car accelerates uniformly from 18.5 m/s to 46.1 m/s in 2.47 seconds. Determine the acceleration of the car and the distance traveled.


  5. A feather is dropped on the moon from a height of 1.40 meters. The acceleration of gravity on the moon is 1.67 m/s2. Determine the time for the feather to fall to the surface of the moon.


  6. Rocket-powered sleds are used to test the human response to acceleration. If a rocket-powered sled is accelerated to a speed of 444 m/s in 1.8 seconds, then what is the acceleration and what is the distance that the sled travels?


  7. A bike accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 7.10 m/s over a distance of 35.4 m. Determine the acceleration of the bike.

  8. An engineer is designing the runway for an airport. Of the planes that will use the airport, the lowest acceleration rate is likely to be 3 m/s2. The takeoff speed for this plane will be 65 m/s. Assuming this minimum acceleration, what is the minimum allowed length for the runway?


  9. A car traveling at 22.4 m/s skids to a stop in 2.55 s. Determine the skidding distance of the car (assume uniform acceleration).


  10. A kangaroo is capable of jumping to a height of 2.62 m. Determine the takeoff speed of the kangaroo.


  11. If Michael Jordan has a vertical leap of 1.29 m, then what is his takeoff speed and his hang time (total time to move upwards to the peak and then return to the ground)?


  12. A bullet leaves a rifle with a muzzle velocity of 521 m/s. While accelerating through the barrel of the rifle, the bullet moves a distance of 0.840 m. Determine the acceleration of the bullet (assume a uniform acceleration).


  13. A baseball is popped straight up into the air and has a hang-time of 6.25 s. Determine the height to which the ball rises before it reaches its peak. (Hint: the time to rise to the peak is one-half the total hang-time.)


  14. The observation deck of tall skyscraper 370 m above the street. Determine the time required for a penny to free fall from the deck to the street below.


  15. A bullet is moving at a speed of 367 m/s when it embeds into a lump of moist clay. The bullet penetrates for a distance of 0.0621 m. Determine the acceleration of the bullet while moving into the clay. (Assume a uniform acceleration.)


  16. A stone is dropped into a deep well and is heard to hit the water 3.41 s after being dropped. Determine the depth of the well.


  17. It was once recorded that a Jaguar left skid marks that were 290 m in length. Assuming that the Jaguar skidded to a stop with a constant acceleration of -3.90 m/s2, determine the speed of the Jaguar before it began to skid.


  18. A plane has a takeoff speed of 88.3 m/s and requires 1365 m to reach that speed. Determine the acceleration of the plane and the time required to reach this speed.


  19. A dragster accelerates to a speed of 112 m/s over a distance of 398 m. Determine the acceleration (assume uniform) of the dragster.

  20. With what speed in miles/hr (1 m/s = 2.23 mi/hr) must an object be thrown to reach a height of 91.5 m (equivalent to one football field)? Assume negligible air resistance.  
 Solutions:
  1. Given:
    a = +3.2 m/s2t = 32.8 svi = 0 m/s
    		Find:
    d = ??
    d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 d = (0 m/s)*(32.8 s)+ 0.5*(3.20 m/s2)*(32.8 s)2
    d = 1720 m
  2. Given:
    d = 110 mt = 5.21 svi = 0 m/s
    		Find:
    a = ??
    d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 110 m = (0 m/s)*(5.21 s)+ 0.5*(a)*(5.21 s)2
    110 m = (13.57 s2)*a
    a = (110 m)/(13.57 s2)
    a = 8.10 m/ s2
  3. Given:
    a = -9.8 mt = 2.6 svi = 0 m/s
    		Find:
    d = ?? vf = ??
    d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 d = (0 m/s)*(2.6 s)+ 0.5*(-9.8 m/s2)*(2.6 s)2
    d = -33 m (- indicates direction)
    vf = vi + a*t
    vf = 0 + (-9.8 m/s2)*(2.6 s)
    vf = -25.5 m/s (- indicates direction)
  4. Given:
    vi = 18.5 m/svf = 46.1 m/st = 2.47 s
    		Find:
    d = ?? a = ??
    a = (Delta v)/t a = (46.1 m/s - 18.5 m/s)/(2.47 s)
    a = 11.2 m/s2
    d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2
    d = (18.5 m/s)*(2.47 s)+ 0.5*(11.2 m/s2)*(2.47 s)2
    d = 45.7 m + 34.1 m
    d = 79.8 m
    (Note: the d can also be calculated using the equation vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d)
  5. Given:
    vi = 0 m/sd = -1.40 ma = -1.67 m/s2
    		Find:
    t = ??
    d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 -1.40 m = (0 m/s)*(t)+ 0.5*(-1.67 m/s2)*(t)2
    -1.40 m = 0+ (-0.835 m/s2)*(t)2
    (-1.40 m)/(-0.835 m/s2) = t2
    1.68 s2 = t2
    t = 1.29 s
  6. Given:
    vi = 0 m/svf = 44 m/st = 1.80 s
    		Find:
    a = ?? d = ??
    a = (Delta v)/t a = (444 m/s - 0 m/s)/(1.80 s)
    a = 247 m/s2
    d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2
    d = (0 m/s)*(1.80 s)+ 0.5*(247 m/s2)*(1.80 s)2
    d = 0 m + 400 m
    d = 400 m
    (Note: the d can also be calculated using the equation vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d)
  7. Given:
    vi = 0 m/svf = 7.10 m/sd = 35.4      m
    		Find:
    a = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (7.10 m/s)2 = (0 m/s)2 + 2*(a)*(35.4 m)
    50.4 m2/s2 = (0 m/s)2 + (70.8 m)*a
    (50.4 m2/s2)/(70.8 m) = a
    a = 0.712 m/s2
  8. Given:
    vi = 0 m/svf = 65 m/sa = 3 m/s2
    		Find:
    d = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (65 m/s)2 = (0 m/s)2 + 2*(3 m/s2)*d
    4225 m2/s2 = (0 m/s)2 + (6 m/s2)*d
    (4225 m2/s2)/(6 m/s2) = d
    d = 704 m
  9. Given:
    vi = 22.4 m/svf = 0 m/st = 2.55      s
    		Find:
    d = ??
    d = (vi + vf)/2 *t d = (22.4 m/s + 0 m/s)/2 *2.55 s
    d = (11.2 m/s)*2.55 s
    d = 28.6 m
  10. Given:
    a = -9.8 m/s2vf = 0 m/sd = 2.62      m
    		Find:
    vi = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (0 m/s)2 = vi2 + 2*(-9.8 m/s2)*(2.62 m)
    0 m2/s2 = vi2 - 51.35 m2/s2
    51.35 m2/s2 = vi2
    vi = 7.17 m/s
  11. Given:
    a = -9.8 m/s2vf = 0 m/sd = 1.29      m
    		Find:
    vi = ?? t = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (0 m/s)2 = vi2 + 2*(-9.8 m/s2)*(1.29 m)
    0 m2/s2 = vi2 - 25.28 m2/s2
    25.28 m2/s2 = vi2
    vi = 5.03 m/s
    To find hang time, find the time to the peak and then double it.
    vf = vi + a*t
    0 m/s = 5.03 m/s + (-9.8 m/s2)*tup
    -5.03 m/s = (-9.8 m/s2)*tup
    (-5.03 m/s)/(-9.8 m/s2) = tup
    tup = 0.513 s
    hang time = 1.03 s
  12. Given:
    vi = 0 m/svf = 521 m/sd = 0.840 m
    		Find:
    a = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (521 m/s)2 = (0 m/s)2 + 2*(a)*(0.840 m)
    271441 m2/s2 = (0 m/s)2 + (1.68 m)*a
    (271441 m2/s2)/(1.68 m) = a
    a = 1.62*105 m /s2
  13. Given:
    a = -9.8 m/s2vf = 0 m/st = 3.13      s
    		Find:
    d = ??
    1. (NOTE: the time required to move to the peak of the trajectory is one-half the total hang time.)
    First use: vf = vi + a*t 0 m/s = vi + (-9.8 m/s2)*(3.13 s)
    0 m/s = vi - 30.6 m/s
    vi = 30.6 m/s
    Now use: vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d
    (0 m/s)2 = (30.6 m/s)2 + 2*(-9.8 m/s2)*(d)
    0 m2/s2 = (938 m/s) + (-19.6 m/s2)*d
    -938 m/s = (-19.6 m/s2)*d
    (-938 m/s)/(-19.6 m/s2) = d
    d = 47.9 m
  14. Given:
    vi = 0 m/sd = -370 ma = -9.8 m/s2
    		Find:
    t = ??
    d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 -370 m = (0 m/s)*(t)+ 0.5*(-9.8 m/s2)*(t)2
    -370 m = 0+ (-4.9 m/s2)*(t)2
    (-370 m)/(-4.9 m/s2) = t2
    75.5 s2 = t2
    t = 8.69 s
  15. Given:
    vi = 367 m/svf = 0 m/sd = 0.0621 m
    		Find:
    a = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (0 m/s)2 = (367 m/s)2 + 2*(a)*(0.0621 m)
    0 m2/s2 = (134689 m2/s2) + (0.1242 m)*a
    -134689 m2/s2 = (0.1242 m)*a
    (-134689 m2/s2)/(0.1242 m) = a
    a = -1.08*106 m /s2
    (The - sign indicates that the bullet slowed down.)
  16. Given:
    a = -9.8 m/s2t = 3.41 svi = 0 m/s
    		Find:
    d = ??
    d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 d = (0 m/s)*(3.41 s)+ 0.5*(-9.8 m/s2)*(3.41 s)2
    d = 0 m+ 0.5*(-9.8 m/s2)*(11.63 s2)
    d = -57.0 m
    (NOTE: the - sign indicates direction)
  17. Given:
    a = -3.90 m/s2vf = 0 m/sd = 290      m
    		Find:
    vi = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (0 m/s)2 = vi2 + 2*(-3.90 m/s2)*(290 m)
    0 m2/s2 = vi2 - 2262 m2/s2
    2262 m2/s2 = vi2
    vi = 47.6 m /s
  18. Given:
    vi = 0 m/svf = 88.3 m/sd = 1365      m
    		Find:
    a = ?? t = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (88.3 m/s)2 = (0 m/s)2 + 2*(a)*(1365 m)
    7797 m2/s2 = (0 m2/s2) + (2730 m)*a
    7797 m2/s2 = (2730 m)*a
    (7797 m2/s2)/(2730 m) = a
    a = 2.86 m/s2
    vf = vi + a*t
    88.3 m/s = 0 m/s + (2.86 m/s2)*t
    (88.3 m/s)/(2.86 m/s2) = t
    t = 30. 8 s
  19. Given:
    vi = 0 m/svf = 112m/sd = 398 m
    		Find:
    a = ??
    vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d (112 m/s)2 = (0 m/s)2 + 2*(a)*(398 m)
    12544 m2/s2 = 0 m2/s2 + (796 m)*a
    12544 m2/s2 = (796 m)*a
    (12544 m2/s2)/(796 m) = a
    a = 15.8 m/s2
  20. Given:
    a = -9.8 m/s2vf = 0 m/sd = 91.5      m
    		Find:
    vi = ?? t = ??
    First, find speed in units of m/s: vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d
    (0 m/s)2 = vi2 + 2*(-9.8 m/s2)*(91.5 m)
    0 m2/s2 = vi2 - 1793 m2/s2
    1793 m2/s2 = vi2
    vi = 42.3 m/s
    Now convert from m/s to mi/hr:
    vi = 42.3 m/s * (2.23 mi/hr)/(1 m/s)
    vi = 94.4 mi/hr

Do Black Holes Come in Size Medium?

                No comments   

Do Black Holes Come in Size Medium?

Nov. 29, 2013 — Black holes can be petite, with masses only about 10 times that of our sun -- or monstrous, boasting the equivalent in mass up to 10 billion suns. Do black holes also come in size medium? NASA's Nuclear Spectroscopic Telescope Array, or NuSTAR, is busy scrutinizing a class of black holes that may fall into the proposed medium-sized category.
Share This:

"Exactly how intermediate-sized black holes would form remains an open issue," said Dominic Walton of the California Institute of Technology, Pasadena. "Some theories suggest they could form in rich, dense clusters of stars through repeated mergers, but there are a lot of questions left to be answered."
The largest black holes, referred to as supermassive, dominate the hearts of galaxies. The immense gravity of these black holes drags material toward them, forcing the material to heat up and release powerful X-rays. Small black holes dot the rest of the galactic landscape. They form under the crush of collapsing, dying stars bigger than our sun.
Evidence for medium-sized black holes lying somewhere between these two extremes might come from objects called ultraluminous X-ray sources, or ULXs. These are pairs of objects in which a black hole ravenously feeds off a normal star. The feeding process is somewhat similar to what happens around supermassive black holes, but isn't as big and messy. In addition, ULXs are located throughout galaxies, not at the cores.
The bright glow of X-rays coming from ULXs is too great to be the product of typical small black holes. This and other evidence indicates the objects may be intermediate in mass, with 100 to 10,000 times the mass of our sun. Alternatively, an explanation may lie in some kind of exotic phenomenon involving extreme accretion, or "feeding," of a black hole.
NuSTAR is joining with other telescopes to take a closer look at ULXs. It's providing the first look at these objects in focused, high-energy X-rays, helping to get better estimates of their masses and other characteristics.
In a new paper from Walton and colleagues accepted for publication in the Astrophysical Journal, the astronomers report serendipitously finding a ULX that had gone largely unnoticed before. They studied the object, which lies in the Circinus spiral galaxy 13 million light-years away, not only with NuSTAR but also with the European Space Agency's XMM-Newton satellite. Archival data from NASA's Chandra, Swift and Spitzer space telescopes as well as Japan's Suzaku satellite, were also used for further studies. "We went to town on this object, looking at a range of epochs and wavelengths," said Walton.
The results indicate the black hole in question is about 100 times the mass of the sun, putting it right at the border between small and medium black holes.
In another accepted Astrophysical Journal paper, Matteo Bachetti of the Institut de Recherche en Astrophysique et Planétologie and colleagues looked at two ULXs in NGC 1313, a spiral galaxy known as the "Topsy Turvy galaxy," also about 13 million light-years way.
These are among the best-studied ULXs known. A single viewing with NuSTAR showed that the black holes didn't fit with models of medium-size black holes. As a result, the researchers now think both ULXs harbor small, stellar-mass black holes. One of the objects is estimated to be big for its size category, at 70 to 100 solar masses.
"It's possible that these objects are ultraluminous because they are accreting material at a high rate and not because of their size," said Bachetti. "If intermediate-mass black holes are out there, they are doing a good job of hiding from us."
NuSTAR is a Small Explorer mission led by Caltech and managed by NASA's Jet Propulsion Laboratory, Pasadena, Calif., for NASA's Science Mission Directorate in Washington. The spacecraft was built by Orbital Sciences Corporation, Dulles, Va. Its instrument was built by a consortium including Caltech; JPL; the University of California, Berkeley; Columbia University, New York; NASA's Goddard Space Flight Center, Greenbelt, Md.; the Danish Technical University in Denmark; Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory, Livermore, Calif.; ATK Aerospace Systems, Goleta, Calif., and with support from the Italian Space Agency (ASI) Science Data Center.
NuSTAR's mission operations center is at UC Berkeley, with the ASI providing its equatorial ground station located at Malindi, Kenya. The mission's outreach program is based at Sonoma State University, Rohnert Park, Calif. NASA's Explorer Program is managed by Goddard. JPL is managed by Caltech for NASA


Scientists Find Brain Region That Helps You Make Up Your Mind

Nov. 24, 2013 — One of the smallest parts of the brain is getting a second look after new research suggests it plays a crucial role in decision making.
Share This:

22
A University of British Columbia study published in Nature Neuroscience says the lateral habenula, a region of the brain linked to depression and avoidance behaviours, has been largely misunderstood and may be integral in cost-benefit decisions.
"These findings clarify the brain processes involved in the important decisions that we make on a daily basis, from choosing between job offers to deciding which house or car to buy," says Prof. Stan Floresco of UBC's Dept. of Psychology and Brain Research Centre (BRC). "It also suggests that the scientific community has misunderstood the true functioning of this mysterious, but important, region of the brain."
In the study, scientists trained lab rats to choose between a consistent small reward (one food pellet) or a potentially larger reward (four food pellets) that appeared sporadically. Like humans, the rats tended to choose larger rewards when costs -- in this case, the amount of time they had to wait before receiving food-were low and preferred smaller rewards when such risks were higher.
Previous studies suggest that turning off the lateral habenula would cause rats to choose the larger, riskier reward more often, but that was not the case. Instead, the rats selected either option at random, no longer showing the ability to choose the best option for them.
The findings have important implications for depression treatment. "Deep brain stimulation -- which is thought to inactivate the lateral habenula -- has been reported to improve depressive symptoms in humans," Floresco says. "But our findings suggest these improvements may not be because patients feel happier. They may simply no longer care as much about what is making them feel depressed."
Background
Floresco, who conducted the study with PhD candidate Colin Stopper, says more investigation is needed to understand the complete brain functions involved in cost-benefit decision processes and related behaviour. A greater understanding of decision-making processes is also crucial, they say, because many psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia, stimulant abuse and depression, are associated with impairments in these processes.
The lateral habenula is considered one of the oldest regions of the brain, evolution-wise, the researchers say.


Questions

                No comments   
1.An airplane accelerates down a runway at 3.20 m/s2 for 32.8 s until is finally lifts off the ground. Determine the distance traveled before takeoff. 

2.A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly over a time of 5.21 seconds for a distance of 110 m. Determine the acceleration of the car. 

3.Upton Chuck is riding the Giant Drop at Great America. If Upton free falls for 2.6 seconds, what will be his final velocity and how far will he fall?

4.A race car accelerates uniformly from 18.5 m/s to 46.1 m/s in 2.47 seconds. Determine the acceleration of the car and the distance traveled. 

5.A feather is dropped on the moon from a height of 1.40 meters. The acceleration of gravity on the moon is 1.67 m/s2. Determine the time for the feather to fall to the surface of the moon. 

6.Rocket-powered sleds are used to test the human response to acceleration. If a rocket-powered sled is accelerated to a speed of 444 m/s in 1.8 seconds, then what is the acceleration and what is the distance that the sled travels? 

Solutions:
1.
Given:
a = +3.2 m/s2t = 32.8 svi = 0 m/s
Find:
d = ??
d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 d = (0 m/s)*(32.8 s)+ 0.5*(3.20 m/s2)*(32.8 s)2
d = 1720 m

2.
Given:
d = 110 mt = 5.21 svi = 0 m/s
Find:
a = ??
d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 110 m = (0 m/s)*(5.21 s)+ 0.5*(a)*(5.21 s)2
110 m = (13.57 s2)*a
a = (110 m)/(13.57 s2)
a = 8.10 m/ s2

3.
Given:
a = -9.8 mt = 2.6 svi = 0 m/s
Find:
d = ?? vf = ??
d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 d = (0 m/s)*(2.6 s)+ 0.5*(-9.8 m/s2)*(2.6 s)2
d = -33 m (- indicates direction)
vf = vi + a*t
vf = 0 + (-9.8 m/s2)*(2.6 s)
vf = -25.5 m/s (- indicates direction)

4.
vi = 18.5 m/svf = 46.1 m/st = 2.47 s
Find:
d = ?? a = ??
a = (Delta v)/t a = (46.1 m/s - 18.5 m/s)/(2.47 s)
a = 11.2 m/s2
d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2
d = (18.5 m/s)*(2.47 s)+ 0.5*(11.2 m/s2)*(2.47 s)2
d = 45.7 m + 34.1 m
d = 79.8 m
(Note: the d can also be calculated using the equation vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d)

5.
Given:
vi = 0 m/sd = -1.40 ma = -1.67 m/s2
Find:
t = ??
d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2 -1.40 m = (0 m/s)*(t)+ 0.5*(-1.67 m/s2)*(t)2
-1.40 m = 0+ (-0.835 m/s2)*(t)2
(-1.40 m)/(-0.835 m/s2) = t2
1.68 s2 = t2
t = 1.29 s


6.

vi = 0 m/svf = 44 m/st = 1.80 s
Find:
a = ?? d = ??
a = (Delta v)/t a = (444 m/s - 0 m/s)/(1.80 s)
a = 247 m/s2
d = vi*t + 0.5*a*t2
d = (0 m/s)*(1.80 s)+ 0.5*(247 m/s2)*(1.80 s)2
d = 0 m + 400 m
d = 400 m
(Note: the d can also be calculated using the equation vf2 = vi2 + 2*a*d)





1. When light bends as it enters a different medium the process is known as what?
2. A magnifying glass is what type of lens?
3. Electric resistance is typically measured in what units?
4. A person who studies physics is known as a?
5. Metals expand when heated and do what when cooled?
6. What is the first name of the famous scientist who gave us Newton’s three laws of motion?
7. What state of the art computer technology is used to train pilots when wanting to copy the experience of flying an aircraft?
8. Electric power is typically measured in what units?
9. The most recognized model of how the universe begun is known as the?
10. Who is the Hubble Space Telescope named after?
11. The wire inside an electric bulb is known as the what?
12. Theoretical physicist James Maxwell was born in what country?
13. Infrared light has a wavelength that is too long or short to be visible for humans?
14. What kind of eclipse do we have when the moon is between the sun and the earth?
15. True or false? Iron is attracted by magnets.
16. What is the earth’s primary source of energy?
17. Conductors have a high or low resistance?
18. Electric current is typically measured in what units?
19. What scientist is well known for his theory of relativity?
20. Earth is located in which galaxy?
Physics Quiz Answers
1. Refraction
2. Convex
3. Ohms
4. Physicist
5. Contract
6. Isaac
7. A flight simulator
8. Watts
9. Big bang
10. Edwin Hubble
11. Filament

12. Scotland
13. Long
14. A solar eclipse
15. True
16. The sun
17. Low
18. Amperes
19. Albert Einstein
20. The Milky Way galaxy

General Science question's pack with answer
1. What is the biggest planet in our solar system?


2. What is the chemical symbol for the element oxygen?


3. Another name for a tidal wave is a?


4. True or false? Dogs are herbivores.


5. What is the 7th element on the periodic table of elements?


6. What is the name of the long appendage that hangs from an elephants face?


7. True or false? DNA is the shortened form of the term ‘Deoxyribonucleic acid’?


8. The highest mountain on earth is?


9. What is the name of the closest star to the earth?


10. True or false? Frogs are cold blooded animals.


11. What is the name of the element with the chemical symbol ‘He’?


12. The fear of what animal is known as ‘arachnophobia’?


13. Pure water has a pH level of a around?


14. The molten rock that comes from a volcano after it has erupted is known as what?


15. True or false? Yogurt is produced by bacterial fermentation of milk.


16. What is the name of the part of the human skeleton which protects our brain?


17. Is the compound ‘HCl’ an acid or base?


18. True or false? The fastest land animal in the world is the zebra.


19. How many bones do sharks have in their bodies?


20. What famous scientist was awarded the 1921 Nobel Prize in Physics for his work on theoretical physics?
ANSWER---
1. Jupiter
2. O
3. Tsunami
4. False - They are omnivores
5. Nitrogen
6. A trunk
7. True
8. Mount Everest
9. The sun
10. True
11. Helium
12. Spiders
13. 7
14. Lava
15. True
16. The skull
17. An acid (hydrochloric acid)
18. False (it is the cheetah)
19. 0
20. Albert Einstein

Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly
A. 2 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 8 minutes
D. 16 minutes
Which of the following is a non metal that remains liquid at room temperature?
A. Phosphorous B. Bromine
C. Chlorine D. Helium